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OXS Question


davego
I get OPS well enough and understand the math and science behind it. I see some promote OXS as a more dependable measure of success. What I don't understand is the "why" behind this stat. Is it simply that slugging is actually "worth" that much more then getting on-base? Those of you greater in your statical enlightenment, please explain.
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Onbase times slugging gives you a better idea than onbase plus slugging, because it will value a higher on base percentage more than a higher slugging percentage.

 

Take two guys who (for example) have a 1.000 OPS.

 

One has a .350 OBP and .650 slg and one has a .400 obp and .600 ops

 

Their OxS would come out to be: .228 and .240, with the higher obp coming out on top.

"I wasted so much time in my life hating Juventus or A.C. Milan that I should have spent hating the Cardinals." ~kalle8

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Onbase times slugging gives you a better idea than onbase plus slugging, because it will value a higher on base percentage more than a higher slugging percentage.

If the formula is just OBP * SLG, how does it inherently value one component more than the other?

Stearns Brewing Co.: Sustainability from farm to plate
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AB x OBP x SLG can estimate runs scored for a team pretty well but it's not really one of those equations that can be directly derived. It just sort of works decently for the ranges of OBP and SLG that you typically see in the majors. I'd focus more on something like linear weights or base runs, that have an actual explanation for their derivation.
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If the formula is just OBP * SLG, how does it inherently value one component more than the other?

 

I worded this poorly.

 

The closer the value of OBP and SLG in the equation for two players with the same OPS (as I'm assuming SLG will always be higher) the higher OBP is the higher the value will be for OxS.

"I wasted so much time in my life hating Juventus or A.C. Milan that I should have spent hating the Cardinals." ~kalle8

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