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Interesting Trivia Question


lcbj68c

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I could think of two ways, but both are pretty far-fetched.

 

1) Guy hits single, caught stealing 2nd.

2) Guy hits single, caught stealing 2nd.

3) Single

4) Single

5) Single

6) Single, but runner on 3rd falls down and runner from 2nd runs past him = out.

Or 6) hit, but a runner inexplicably runs out of the baseline and is called out before the run scores.

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I could think of two ways, but both are pretty far-fetched.

1) Guy hits single, caught stealing 2nd.
2) Guy hits single, caught stealing 2nd.
3) Single
4) Single
5) Single
6) Single, but runner on 3rd falls down and runner from 2nd runs past him = out.
Or 6) hit, but a runner inexplicably runs out of the baseline and is called out before the run scores.
I think 1 through 5 are correct...but I believe number 6 is one of the runners in fair territory (probably either the guy on 1st or 2nd) gets hit by the batted ball. That is the third out and the batter is credited with a single.

edit: I missed that worm8181 already eluded to this scenario

User in-game thread post in 1st inning of 3rd game of the 2022 season: "This team stinks"

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One of the hits could also be someone who gets a hit then gets thrown out trying to stretch it to a double. They are out, but are still credited with a single.
Yeah, there all sorts of ways to get the first 5 hits and not score a run. It's the 6th hit that's tricky. Another way to ask this question would be..It's bases loaded with two outs. How do you get a hit and not score a run? I'm pretty sure the base runner getting hit by a batted ball in fair territory is the answer.

User in-game thread post in 1st inning of 3rd game of the 2022 season: "This team stinks"

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So, if there is a runner on first and the batter hits a ball in the gap, then the runner tries to score and is thrown out, the batter gets a fielders choice?
No, the runner would be credited with a hit (probably a double...if it was in the gap). However, the original question was how can you get 6 hits in an inning and not score a run. That would could be one of the original hits (there are many ways you could get 5 hits and not score a run). However, after 5 hits (and no runs), you are always going to be left with bases loaded and 2 outs. The scenario you mentioned would not apply to that situation (the runners in front of the guy on first would score).

User in-game thread post in 1st inning of 3rd game of the 2022 season: "This team stinks"

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"Wouldn't it just be single, single, single, and then 3 more singles with a guy getting thrown out at home each time?"

 

"Those three 'singles' would turn into fielder's choices unless there was some bizarre added twist to them that I'm not thinking of."

 

Would they be fielder's choices if the outfielder first threw to first late, and then the first baseman threw home and got the guy at home? Like if Estrada was on third and Hart or Weeks batting. It could happen.

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I think you have to preface the original question with "What is the most likely way to...."

 

I believe if you get a force out at home, 3rd, or 2nd it always goes down as a FC, regardless of where the ball was hit or how slow the runners are. I could be wrong though.

User in-game thread post in 1st inning of 3rd game of the 2022 season: "This team stinks"

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